Easy question on Modem Enable()

Dan Williams dcbw at redhat.com
Fri Mar 6 14:13:24 PST 2015


On Fri, 2015-03-06 at 21:15 +0000, Highland, Glenn wrote:
> Hello all,
> 
> This question to just verify my understanding (no problems seen yet since we're not ready with our hardware to actually test on a real modem).
> 
> 
> 
> If application code executes the Modem Enable() method and immediately afterwards performs a Get() on the Modem OwnNumbers
> 
> property, would that be proper usage?
> 
> 
> 
> The reason I ask is I wasn't certain if there needed to be any kind of delay implemented to allow the modem to initialize after the Enable().

Own numbers and a bunch of other properties are read during INITIALIZING
state, which is very early.  Once the modem hits the DISABLED state
these properties have been read from the modem, and are as valid as they
will ever be.  Thus calling both Enable() and retrieving own numbers in
parallel shouldn't be a problem.  If MM screws that up, let us know!

Dan



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