[OpenFontLibrary] Public Domain Fonts due to lack of copyright notice

Christopher Fynn cfynn at gmx.net
Wed Dec 24 20:55:59 PST 2008


On Mon, 2008-11-10 at 21:13 -0500, Fontfreedom at aol.com wrote:

> It's my understanding that anything published in the U.S. before March
> 1, 1989 without a valid copyright notice is in the public domain.
> (unless the work was registered with the copyright office, fees paid
> within a short time period.)

Your "understanding" is likely incorrect. If something does not have
a copyright notice or a US registered copyright that does not 
automatically place it in the "public domain".

Even if it were legally permissible in the US to distribute pre-1989 
fonts  without a copyright notice or registered copyright - do you 
believe it would be ethical do this without the designer / font creators 
agreement? Because something may be allowed under the law of a 
particular jurisdiction that does not make it morally and ethically OK.

People who are most vocal about being able to distribute fonts freely 
most always seem to be talking about the work of others. Why is it I 
don't hear this sort of suggestion from people who have designed serious 
original fonts on their own from scratch?

- Chris



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